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Can one divorce one's wife who does not undergo menses whereby there is no gap of time between the divorce and having had sex with her? PDF Print E-mail
Kitabut Talaq [Divorce] - Definition

Question 1574) - Can one divorce one's wife who does not undergo menses whereby there is no gap of time between the divorce and having had sex with her?

A: It is permissible.

~ al-Quduri ~