A man gave his wife a Bain divorce. He then marries her during her Iddah. He again divorces her without having sex. Does she begin the Iddah anew? |
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Kitabul'Iddah -
Definition
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Question 1664) - A man gave his wife a Bain divorce. He then marries her during her Iddah. He again divorces her without having sex. Does she begin the Iddah anew?
A: According to Imaam Abu Hanifah RAH. yes. According to Imaam Muhammed RAH. completing the first iddah is sufficient.
~ al-Quduri ~
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