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A man gave his wife a Bain divorce. He then marries her during her Iddah. He again divorces her without having sex. Does she begin the Iddah anew? PDF Print E-mail
Kitabul'Iddah - Definition

Question 1664) - A man gave his wife a Bain divorce. He then marries her during her Iddah. He again divorces her without having sex. Does she begin the Iddah anew?

A: According to Imaam Abu Hanifah RAH. yes. According to Imaam Muhammed RAH. completing the first iddah is sufficient.

~ al-Quduri ~