A man frees his slave and stipulates that he does not hold his Wala, but the Muslims in general hold it. Is this valid? |
|
|
|
Question 1857) - A man frees his slave and stipulates that he does not hold his Wala, but the Muslims in general hold it. Is this valid?
A: No, Wala is established to the one who freed the slave. His denial of it has no effect.*
* Because the stipulation contradicts the clear words of the Hadith, ?Wala is for the who frees.? [al-Jawharah]
~ al-Quduri ~
|